But does the word of the REAL bible really remain the same? please help me on this one. Im not dissing Haile Selassie, but what would he answer to the fact that "virgin" also could mean "young woman"(alma)in Hebrew ?
Or that The New International Version says that all foods are now clean when the King James Version explain it like this: Mark 7:18-19 "And he saith unto them, Are ye so without understanding also? Do ye not perceive, that whatsoever thing from without entereth into the man, it cannot defile him. Because it entereth not into his heart, but into the belly, and goeth out into the draught, purging all meats?" - He simply means that if you nyam some unclean meat, it's not the biggest sin in the world because it's gonna be cleansed out again. BUT he NEVER said it was clean.
NOW The New version added their own fake translation which is in the parentheses below
“Don't you see that nothing that enters a person from the outside can defile them? For it doesn't go into their heart but into their stomach, and then out of the body.” (In saying this, Jesus declared all foods clean.) - New international version
Now people can read this version to think that Pork is a clean meat to nyam and therefore get deceived from the true original word.
Another example -
Rape is totally forbidden and is punished with death. It's actually compared to killing your neighbor as described in Deuteronomy 22:25-27
BUT Deuteronomy 22:28-29 says:"If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, He shall pay her father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the young woman, for he has violated her, He can never divorce her as long as he lives" - That's a huge oxymoron. And to me it sounds like they simply translated it badly/incorrectly. I think that "rape" should have been read as"having intercourse" (where both people agree). Because no man would marry a woman who was not a virgin at that time as it was against "God's law" AND every man that raped would have been put to death. So once again the word does not remain 100% the same. What do Haile Selassie mean then when he says that the word remains the same no matter which version it may be?
Selassie also says that "unless man accepts with clear conscience the Bible and its great Message, he cannot hope for salvation."
But for me it's hard to get, cuz I think there are many messages of the bible. The Christ message are easy to accept. Others I don't overstand
I think that women are very downpressed in the OT. First, you must not marry the man you are in love with, but fathers marry their daughters away and David buy his Wife Michal for 200 penis parts. Haile Selassie was very keen on equality between man and womban, from when he insisted that Menen should be crowned on the same day as himself to the education he and his wife offered to women. Would he agree with the message of the OT on how the women were treated?
And can muslims or (people with other faith) accept the message of the bible without being a christian?
I HAVE to question the faith on these topics. Hope I can get some answers. Give thanks :)